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If anyone desires to ask biblical or spiritual questions, he may send letters to the editor. We will try our best to answer them. Please forgive us for not answering unprofitable questions.
Question: Paradise is mentioned in Luke 23:43, Revelation 2:7, and 2 Corinthians 12:4. Is there any difference between them? (Liu, Feng Village)
Answer: The Paradise in Revelation 2:7 is "the Paradise of God" which is the New Jerusalem in the future. We can see this by considering the tree of life which is in the midst of it. The Paradise in Luke 23 and 2 Corinthians 12 refers to the Paradise underneath the earth where the dead believers go.
Question: What is meant by trance in Acts 10:10 and 22:17? (Liu, Feng Village)
Answer: A trance is when the Holy Spirit causes the saints to leave their bodies temporarily and enter into the spiritual realm to receive supernatural vision. John's revelation is such a one.
Question: In the whole chapter of 1 Samuel 28, witchcraft was used by the medium to bring up Samuel. Was it his soul or body that came up? Why did he come up from underneath the earth? (Liu, Feng Village)
Answer: It was his spirit, because his body had been buried and had already decayed. The spirit also has its form. Therefore, the rich man in Hades still had eyes, a tongue, and so forth. Both Hades and Paradise are underneath the earth. This is why Samuel came up from underneath the earth.
Question: Before the gospel of the Lord came to China, there were many God-fearing, righteous people who had not heard the gospel and had no knowledge to believe in the Lord. May I ask, how did these people get saved? (Lai, Chingliu)
Answer: One thing is certain, "There is no respect of persons with God" (Rom. 2:11). Romans 2:7-8, 12-15 refers to this question.
Question: Baptism by immersion is the most scriptural method. It is the Lord's command. But my previous baptism was not by immersion. I am aware of the fact that this is incomplete, and I really hope to be baptized by immersion in the near future. I do not know who should be the baptizer or whether there are any qualifications for such a one. Please answer in detail. (Lai, Chingliu)
Answer: It is correct to say that baptism by immersion is most scriptural. There is no reason that any faithful child of God should be excused. Baptism by a pastor is part of the system of the denominations today. However, is this the teaching of the Bible? Where is there such an ordinance in the Bible? This is but a poison of the Roman Catholic Church that has not been completely removed from the denominations! In the Bible baptism is committed to the "disciples" (Matt. 28:16, 19). The disciples were the Christians (Acts 11:26). Hence, every disciple, or Christian, can baptize others. All who believe in the Lord Jesus Christ as their Savior can baptize others. Aside from this, all are human traditions.
Question: In Revelation 20:7-8, since Satan has been locked up by then, and can be thrown into the lake of fire any time, why is he loosed to deceive many? (Lai, Chingliu)
Answer: It is very difficult for men to explain what God has ordained. However, in the millennium many people will still be born. They cannot be identified as being good or evil unless they are tested by Satan. Furthermore, it seems that without this step, the millennium cannot come to a proper end, and the new heaven and new earth cannot be ushered in.
Question: Do believers who have slept in the Lord ascend to heaven directly, or do they wait in Hades for the Lord's coming? (Lai, Chingliu)
Answer: They have not yet ascended to heaven. The same is true with the saints in the Old Testament (John 3:13). They wait in Hades — the Paradise section — until the Lord's coming. Therefore, the future resurrection of the saints is rendered in the original text of the Bible as a "rising up." To be "up" is to come from below. Hence, they are now in Hades.
Question: I read the Question and Answer Box in the fifth issue which said that for women to preach is improper. This is right. But did Paul forbid it because at that time the women who preached in the meetings were not spiritual and were disorderly, or because it is wrong for women to preach, then and now, and whether or not they are spiritual? Why does the Lord Jesus pour out His Spirit upon many women in this age and choose them to preach to all nations? If women must not preach at all, may I ask then what is the explanation for Acts 2:17-18 and 21:9? (Chung, Chekiang)
Answer: In the fifth issue of The Christian, we did not say that "for women to preach is improper." Our teaching is that women should not preach in the meetings, that is, in a church meeting where there is a mixture of men and women. Women can preach (1 Cor. 11:5), but the Bible forbids them to speak "in the churches" (14:34). We should make this distinction. It was not due to the fact that the women in those days were not spiritual that Paul restrained them. Paul said, "For it is a shame for a woman to speak in the church" (v. 35). Moreover, immediately after this, Paul said, "If anyone thinks he is a prophet or spiritual, let him fully know the things which I write to you, that they are the commandment of the Lord" (v. 37). Today, man considers that spiritual women can preach in the meetings, but Paul considered that if women were spiritual, then they would not preach in the meetings! The world considers that spiritual women can be an exception, but the Bible uses this to test who is spiritual: those who are spiritual will not open their mouth! It is true that the Lord Jesus chose many women to preach for Him, but the Lord did not command them to preach in the meetings. Pentecost was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Acts 2:17-18, but we do not see Mary or other women standing up to preach in the meetings among male and female. Peter was the only one who preached there. It is true that they prophesied in Acts 21:9, but the Bible does not say that they did it in the meetings. Women can preach, but they should not preach in meetings that have both men and women. This is the Lord's commandment, and all who are spiritual should obey it.
Question: Is the Chinese Independent Church the same as the Christian Social Reform? Please inform me. I ask this because there are many who want to form an Independent Church. (Chang, Honan)
Answer: The Independent Church is one of the present denominations. Social Reform is one of the institutions established by the denominations. The two are different. In the Bible, there is never such a thing as the Independent Church. Everything concerning the church should be practiced wholly in accordance with the Bible. A church that is really in accordance with the Bible cannot be established just because man "wants to" establish it. God's attitude toward the existing denominations is to "flee" (2 Tim. 2:21-22).
Question: Is the young man in Mark 14:51-52 Joseph? And why did he have a linen cloth cast about his naked body while following Jesus? When all laid hold on him, he left the linen cloth and fled. What is the hidden meaning? Please inform me. (Chang, Honan)
Answer: I do not know whether he was Joseph or not. Verses 51 and 52 are a continuation of verse 50. It is just to show how the disciple fled for his life on that day and did not even care for the linen cloth!
Question: First Peter 3:19-20: "In which also He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison, who had formerly disobeyed when the long-suffering of God waited in the days of Noah." Again 4:6 says, "For unto this end the gospel was announced also to those who are now dead, that they might be judged in the flesh according to men but live in the spirit according to God." Some have said that this was the subject Jesus discussed with Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration? (Chuan, Hsuyiu)
Answer: The Lord Jesus did not discuss this subject with Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration. Luke 9:31 says, "Who [Moses and Elijah] appeared in glory and spoke of His departure, which He was about to complete in Jerusalem." The thing which the Lord Jesus was about to complete through His death was redemption. The subject on the Mount of Transfiguration was the redemptive death of the Lord Jesus. Praise the Lord.
Question: Revelation 7 recorded that a hundred and forty-four thousand were sealed. But the tribe of Dan was not included in this number. Instead, Joseph and his son Manasseh take up two tribes. What is the hidden meaning in this? Please instruct me. (Chen, Kutien)
Answer: The number one hundred and forty-four thousand does not mean that that is the only number of saved ones among Israel. These one hundred and forty-four thousand people are those related to the Lord's administration during His reign in the millennium. Dan is not mentioned here. However, Ezekiel 48:1 says clearly that in the millennial kingdom Dan's position will be in the north of Palestine. From this, we can see that the one hundred and forty-four thousand is not the number of saved Israelites entering the millennial kingdom. It has to mean something else. As far as the reason for Dan's removal, the record of the Bible from Genesis 49 on reveals Dan's apostasy and degradation. Dan's name was removed once in the Books of Chronicles already. God removed Dan because it was a tribe of idol worshippers. It has no part in Christ's administration. In the millennial kingdom, Dan's position will be merely to judge its own people, as one of the tribes of Israel (Gen. 49:16). The reason Joseph and his sons occupy two tribes can be seen in 1 Chronicles 5:1-2 and Genesis 49:26.
Question: When Matthew speaks of the kingdom of the heavens, is it referring to the kingdom of God or to the church? According to chapter thirteen, where the kingdom of the heavens is likened unto leaven, I feel that the kingdom of the heavens is referring to the corruption of the church. How is it? Please instruct me. (Lai, Chingliu)
Answer: The kingdom of God is the kingdom of the heavens (Matt. 13:31-33, cf. Luke 13:18-21, etc.). However, the kingdom of the heavens is not the kingdom of God. (Matthew mainly speaks of the kingdom of the heavens, yet sometimes it speaks of the kingdom of God, as in 12:28, etc.) The sphere of the kingdom of God is very broad and includes the kingdom of the heavens. Therefore, sometimes the kingdom of God is the kingdom of the heavens. The kingdom of the heavens refers only to the saints' exercise at present and their reigning in the future. If we want to know if within a certain passage there is a difference between the kingdom of God and the kingdom of the heavens, we have to consider the context. Neither does the kingdom of the heavens refer to the church. The church is a house (1 Tim. 3:15). The kingdom of the heavens is a kingdom. At present the saints are in both of these things. The church speaks of our position, and the kingdom of the heavens speaks of our walk. The church is a grace we have received, whereas the kingdom of the heavens is an exercise we are subject to. To enter into the kingdom of the heavens, we need to have the practical righteousness (Matt. 5:20) and to become as undefiled as little children (18:3). Therefore, the tares, the birds, the leaven, and the foul things from the sea in Matthew 13 are not the things in the kingdom of the heavens; they are those having a name only without the reality. They have not really entered into the kingdom of the heavens.
Question: The devil was a God-created angel. Because he became proud and desired to be as great as God, God drove him out of heaven into the world and cut him off from God forever. From then on, he became the devil (also called Satan), the enemy of man and of God. What I want to ask is: from what book is this matter revealed? Probably it was not man's fabrication. Please instruct me. (Honan)
Answer: The origin of the devil, as you described it, can be found in Ezekiel 28 and Isaiah 14:12-14. Ezekiel 28 speaks of the king of Tyre, and Isaiah 14 speaks of the king of Babylon. According to the view of the world's best Bible expositors, these two places in the Bible do not refer only to men, because many of the things said cannot be applied to men of flesh. Satan is behind the kings of Tyre and Babylon. For a detailed explanation, please read The Christian, Issue No. 3.
Question: Since the devil was created by God, when he committed sin, would it not have been simpler for God just to destroy him? Why should he be driven to the earth to seduce men to sin, and why did God then have to prepare a way of salvation for man? Is this not too troublesome? (Honan)
Answer: God did not create the devil. What God created was a beautiful angel. The devil was created by Satan himself. It is similar to the fact that God only created Adam, but He did not create a sinner. God's way of salvation cannot be apprehended by men. Although men have many ideas, these ideas only expose men's foolishness. Concerning these things, many times we have only one prepared answer: "I don't know." We should have the attitude of Deuteronomy 29:29.
Question: When the devil sinned, he was driven to the earth away from God's presence and became the enemy of man and God. Why is it that the devil was able to go before God again to accuse Job? Why would God even grant the devil's request to test Job? If Job's faith was not strong at that time and he had failed, who would be responsible for this? (Honan)
Answer: God has His timing, and before the time He has set for the devil is up, the devil can still come before God. By Revelation 12, he will not be able to do it any longer. God permitted the devil to do things to His children in order to manifest the faith of His children for His glory. If Job had failed, the one responsible would have been Job himself. The outward temptation only shows the inward reality. Of course, the devil also is partly responsible. Nevertheless, 1 Corinthians 10:13 cannot be wrong.
Question: In the Old Testament age, men were for the most part ignorant of God's will. There was often the custom of esteeming the male and despising the female. In the New Testament, the Lord Jesus broke down the boundary between male and female. Both are created by God, both are God's children, and therefore, there is no important difference between them. In 1 Corinthians 11:5 the apostle Paul says, "But every woman praying or prophesying with her head uncovered disgraces her head." Also 1 Timothy 2:12 says, "But I do not permit a woman to teach." May I ask, is it sinful for a woman to pray with no head covering? Is it sinful for a woman to preach? Why is it that in these days women pray without a head overing? How come there are still so many women who preach! (Honan)
Answer: Because men rebelled against the teachings of the Bible, they drifted with the current of the world. Adam was created first and then Eve (1 Tim. 2:13). Man is the head of the woman (1 Cor. 11:3), and the woman was created to help the man (v. 9; Gen. 2:18). These are unchanging principles of the Bible. The present women's liberation movement tries to overthrow God's ordained order. How sad it is! Originally, women did have their own position; to oppress them or to take advantage of them is not permitted by the Bible. However, for anyone to change the positions which God has ordained for male and female is abominable to God. It is not because I am a male that I speak this way. If I were a female, I would also insist on the same. The Bible is the only standard for our words and actions. We do not want to hear what worldly philosophy says. We dare not say whether it is sinful for a woman to pray with no head covering and to preach in the meetings. But one thing we know: to do this is against the commandment of the Scripture. Some may ask, "If the Bible says this, will it not be standing in the way of the tide of the age?" Our answer is this: "When have we ever seen the Bible going along with the tide of the age?"
Question: First Peter 3:19-22 says that the Lord Jesus went down to Hades and preached to the spirits in prison — those who were drowned by the Deluge in the days of Noah. Is there such a thing that the Lord Jesus went down to Hades to preach? First Peter 4:6 also recorded, "The gospel was announced also to those who are now dead." If the dead are still able to hear the gospel, then the living ones do not have to believe any longer. Is this kind of teaching possible? Otherwise, how are these verses to be explained? (Honan)
Answer: This question has been answered in Issue No. 1. Please read it.
Question: Did the Holy Spirit purposely lead the Lord Jesus to the wilderness to be tempted by the devil? When the devil tempted Jesus in the wilderness on that day, was it a visible kind of temptation, or was it an invisible kind of temptation?
A visible kind of temptation would be one in which the devil tempted Jesus through man. If the devil tempted Jesus through man, please read Luke 4:5 [KJV], which says that he led Him up to a high mountain! How can there be such a high mountain in the wilderness? What was the name of this mountain? Verse 9 says, "And he led Him into Jerusalem and set Him on the wing of the temple." Was there a Jerusalem in the wilderness? Was there a temple? If there were none, how did the devil take Jesus to these places?
An invisible kind of temptation would be for the Lord Jesus to go into the wilderness after He was baptized in the river Jordan and be caught up in a trance while contemplating and meditating there, and for the devil to take advantage of this, leading Him to a high mountain and to Jerusalem, showing Him everything, and inducing Him to submit to him, thus annulling the work of salvation. Which one of these two understandings is right? Please instruct me. (Honan)
Answer: The first Adam failed because of temptation. Unless the last Adam goes through temptations also, He cannot prove His qualifications. At the river Jordan God has already acknowledged Him to be His Son. Now this has to be declared before Satan. The Holy Spirit purposely led the Lord Jesus to the wilderness to be tempted. The devil tempts us by entering into our mind. However, from John 14:30 we see that he could not enter into the Lord Jesus to tempt Him. Therefore, he probably came with a form. But even with a form, the devil is free to come and go in a supernatural way (Job 1). Hence, there is not a problem as you have imagined.
Question: In Luke 16:1-9, it seems that the Lord's intention in speaking the parable is to disapprove of this kind of person. But in verse 8 He commended the same for doing wisely, as if He somewhat approved of him. Verse 9 says, "And I say to you, Make friends for yourselves by means of the mammon of unrighteousness, so that when it fails, they may receive you into the eternal tabernacles." This seems to indicate that the disciples should make friends with the mammon of unrighteousness that they may gain something later on. May I ask what is the meaning of these two verses? (Honan)
Answer: "The master" in verse 8 was the master in this story, not the Lord in heaven. The Lord in heaven did not commend this way. The Lord's teaching is that man should use his mammon to save souls (rather than to contribute to the denominations), that others may be saved through one's offerings. When we die, we will have friends who, due to our offerings, have been saved, and they will receive us into the eternal tabernacles. Any kind of money stands in opposition to God (v. 13) and is therefore unrighteous. Money itself is the "mammon of unrighteousness."
Question: Historically, women have only held the office of deaconess in the church. This can be seen clearly from the Bible. Recently, I read the special issue of the Seminary Magazine on history, and I found out that the Quakers in Nanking are actually having women pastors. I also read the Women Pastors' Magazine, which said that the Hunan Presbyterian Church also has appointed women as elders. Can a woman hold the positions of pastors and elders in the church? I hope you will give me some clear advice! (Tsui, Anhwei)
Answer: All things that the Bible has not covered are human inventions and traditions. Modern men think that advances in the world today and the tide of the age have precipitated the need for the church to have better organization than that recorded in the Bible. I may be a fool, and I dare say that there are many more fools like me who would not dare to speak or think this way. I tremble when I hear these kinds of words. For women to be pastors and elders is but one expression of the rebellion and insubordination of the world today. What a pity this is! The Word of God says, "Let a woman learn in quietness and in all subjection; but I do not permit a woman to teach or to assert authority over a man, but to be in quietness" (1 Tim. 2:11-12). Today the spirit of antichrist is active everywhere, and all past regulations and boundaries are systematically being destroyed. The so-called equality and freedom are but terms only! The females are like this, and the males are no exception either. The Bible considers pastoring a kind of gift given to the entire church (Eph. 4:11-12). Modern men, however, consider it as a kind of office and a system in the church. This is far from the revelation of the holy Scripture. As far as the elders are concerned, only the apostles and those who are charged by the apostles have the authority to establish them. But at present, there are no apostles, yet there are the elders! There is too much of the human element in the church! We should confess our failures before the Lord more, and we should ask Him to revive His children more. Amen.
Question: Yesterday a friend of mine asked about 1 John 5:6, "This is He who came through water and blood," and wanted to know how one should interpret the water? I could not answer this. (Tsui, Anhwei)
Answer: In expounding the Bible, we must be balanced. The blood in this verse is just blood; therefore, the water in this verse must also be just water. Since the blood cannot be interpreted spiritually, the water should not be interpreted spiritually either. Water is for cleansing, and the blood is for redemption. The Lord Jesus came not only to cleanse, but also to redeem.
Question: Luke 21:16 says, "They will put some of you to death," but verse 18 says, "Yet a hair of your head shall by no means perish." Why does it say that they will be put to death, and at the same time that not one of their hairs shall perish? Is there an error in translation? Please instruct me. (Tsui, Anhwei)
Answer: Although the Lord Jesus died, the word of the Scripture was fulfilled in that not one bone of His was broken. The same is true here. Furthermore, though these ones will be killed in their bodies, not one of their hairs will be hurt. There is no error in the translation.
Question: What is the difference between heaven and the kingdom of the heavens? (Chen, Changchou)
Answer: Heaven is the ultimate dwelling place of the saved ones and is the New Jerusalem. The kingdom of the heavens is where the saints are being disciplined today and where in the future they will be reigning with the Lord for a thousand years.
Question: Was the church's dark age and Martin Luther's Reformation prophesied by the prophets of old, or was it spoken of by the Lord Jesus? (Chen, Changchou)
Answer: The prophets of old did not speak about it. In Revelation 3:1-6 the Lord Jesus did speak about it. Historically, Sardis is the age of Protestantism.
Question: What is the explanation of Matthew 12:31-32? What was the reason behind those words? Please instruct me. (Chung Nai-Cheng)
Answer: To sin by blaspheming the Holy Spirit was for men to harden their hearts when they knew (v. 27) that the Lord Jesus Himself had cast out demons by the Holy Spirit (v. 28), and for them to say that He cast out the demons by the ruler of the demons (v. 24). This sin occurred only in those days. The Lord Jesus came to the world to save men; all sins against Him and all other sins can be forgiven. But those who blasphemed the Holy Spirit, who purposely disbelieved when clear proofs were there, and who spoke blasphemous words had their hearts hardened to a point beyond repentance. As such, their sin remained and could not be forgiven.
Question: Some consider it inaccurate to say that the Savior was born on December 25th. What then is the actual date? Some oppose meetings on Christmas Day. Should Christians remember Him on this day or not? (Chung, Chekiang)
Answer: The Bible does not tell us on which day the Savior was born. This shows that God does not want man to know the date. December 25th came from the Roman Catholic Church. History tells us that this date was fixed by man, and it is therefore not accurate. God only commands us to remember the Lord at His supper (1 Cor. 11:23-26). We should not add anything to what God has not spoken. Hence, Christians should not go along with men to celebrate.
Question: Matthew 11:16-17 say, "But to what shall I liken this generation? It is like little children sitting in the market places, who call to the others and say, We have played the flute to you, and you did not dance; we have sung a dirge, and you did not mourn." I have considered it over and over again, and I am not able to understand it. Therefore, I am sending you this letter especially to inquire about this. (Wang Hua-Wu)
Answer: The explanation of these two verses is in the following two verses, 18 and 19. The Lord Jesus came and preached the gospel; He is the Bridegroom who gives man the new wine, and His mission is recorded in Luke 4:18-19. His preaching of the glad tidings was like a kind of piping to them, yet that generation did not respond in joy. John the Baptist came and preached repentance, and he told people that every tree that does not bring forth good fruit is hewn down and cast into the fire. How sobering this is! Yet, that generation heard him mourn in such a way, but did not lament with repentance. Men of this age are the same! They have heard about hell, but are still not fearful; they have heard about heaven, but are still not joyful. Their end will indeed be pitiful!
Question: What does Matthew 13:52 mean by the things new and old? Can it mean the mixture of the new and the old religion? What will happen if I cannot follow Jesus' teaching in John 15:13? Please answer. (Lee, Linshui)
Answer: Matthew 13:52 is speaking about the importance of understanding the parables of the kingdom of the heavens. The new and old things do not have any specific reference. What the Lord Jesus meant was that if the scribes understood the words concerning the kingdom of the heavens, they would be able to teach others easily, like being able to bring forth things new and old out of their treasury at will.
Question: In Exodus 4:24-26, why did God want to kill Moses? How do you explain "a bloody husband"? (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: Moses was about to represent the law, but his son was not yet circumcised. In order to be under the law, he had to do this. Verse 26 tells us the meaning of a bloody husband. He was stained with blood through circumcision. This is why he was called a bloody husband.
Question: Since you went back, I have been reading two chapters of the Bible a day. Matthew 27:52 says, "And the tombs were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised." This is the resurrection of the dead saints. But there is a record in another place of the Bible which says that Christ is the firstborn from the dead. How could some get resurrected before the Lord Jesus died? Please explain. (Chien, Changchou)
Answer: The Bible only considers Christ as the firstfruit of resurrection (1 Cor. 15:20), but He was not the first person who resurrected. In the Old Testament, Elisha raised the dead. When the Lord Jesus was on earth, He raised at least three persons from the dead. The resurrection of these saints should not be considered as something strange. The meaning of Christ being the firstfruit is that He is the only One who had His kind of resurrection.
Question: What does "the husband" in Romans 7:2-3 refer to? I have heard some say that it refers to the "old self" — the flesh, whereas others say that it refers to the "law." (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: It refers to the passions for sins in the flesh. We are the "woman," and the "passions for sins" (v. 5) is the "husband." When the husband is living, the woman is bound by the law (v. 2). When the passions for sins are living, we are bound by the law (vv. 5-6). The passions for sins become dead through the body of Christ. In this way, the law also becomes dead (v. 4), and we are free.
Question: How do you explain the "seventy-five souls" in Acts 7:14 and the seventy souls in Genesis 46:27? (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: The seventy souls is the number of the house of Jacob (Gen. 46:27), which are "his sons, and his sons' sons with him, his daughters, and his sons' daughters, and all his seed" (v. 7). The "seventy-five souls" includes all of Jacob's relatives. Acts 7:14 is the number for "all his family," which in the original language means "relatives." Thus, there were five more relatives. It was reasonable to include them. Therefore, the two passages do not contradict one another.
Question: Genesis 33:18-19 and Joshua 24:32 both speak about Jacob buying a parcel of a field from Hamor. Why in Acts 7:16 does it say that Abraham did it? Please explain. (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: Acts 7:16 is in harmony with Genesis 50:13. According to Genesis 49:29-32 and 50:13, Jacob was buried in the parcel of land that Abraham bought. Acts 7:16 was right on this point. However, in between Abraham's purchasing of the land (Gen. 23) and Jacob's purchasing of the land, there were about eighty years. During those eighty years, the landlord came again to take over the land; Jacob did not fight with him, but repurchased the same land that his grandfather had bought. The land which Jacob purchased was the same lot Abraham bought; Shechem's father and Ephron were both Hamor's descendants. These two points are explained clearly in Acts 7:16. Therefore, there is no contradiction here.
Question: How do you explain the "four hundred years" in Genesis 15:13 and Acts 7:6, and the "four hundred thirty years" in Exodus 12:40? (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: The Israelites "dwelt" in Egypt for four hundred thirty years (Exo. 12:40). However, during the first thirty years, they lived in peace. During those four hundred thirty years, they were only afflicted four hundred years. These two portions are in perfect harmony.
Question: How do you explain Genesis 49:3-27? (Lee, Chefoo)
Answer: Genesis 49 is Jacob's blessing for the twelve tribes of Israel. Moses' blessing in Deuteronomy 33 stresses God's purpose more, whereas the emphasis here is on their experience. This chapter is divided into four sections, with every three tribes comprising a section. In Reuben, Simeon, and Levi, we see man's natural condition. In Zebulun, Issachar, and Dan we see that, although God has the blessings, there are still forces that pull one away from Him. In Gad, Asher, and Naphtali, we see the result of salvation. In Judah, Joseph, and Benjamin, we see Christ. Verses 5 through 7 speak of Simeon and Levi's cruelty; chapter thirty-four is one example of it. Verse 7 was eventually fully fulfilled. Nothing more needs to be said of Levi. For Simeon, see Joshua 19:1-9. Verses 8 through 12 speak of Judah's kingship. David came from this tribe. Shiloh is Christ. Verses 11 and 12 show the state of the millennial kingdom, where Christ will reign. Verse 13 speaks of Zebulun's commerce. Verses 14 to 15 speak of Issachar's love for a quiet life and hard labor. Verse 16 is Dan's latter state. Verse 17 is related to his apostasy. Verse 18 is Jacob's prayer. Verse 19 is Gad's initial defeat and final victory. Verse 20 tells of Asher's production. Verse 21 speaks of Naphtali's goodly words. Verses 22 to 26 mention the blessings received by Joseph, who typifies Christ. Verse 27 is Benjamin's future. His condition, as such, partly typifies the power of Christ. We cannot relate them all in detail. If the Lord tarries, please read Meditations on Genesis. However, you can look up the history of the tribes sequentially in the holy Scriptures, and you can find the fulfillment to all these prophecies.
P.S. Concerning the Companion Bible you mentioned, its price is approximately thirty dollars. Aside from explaining some original texts, there is nothing else in it. Although at the back of the book there are more than a hundred short articles, most of them are too subjective, and many of them are not even scriptural. There are many commentaries of the Bible in English, but none of them is perfect. Either they come short in the spiritual interpretation, or they come short in critical analysis. There are many more commentaries that are banned by some denominations. Probably there is not one perfect commentary in the world. To find such a one, you have to go to heaven. As far as my observation is concerned, Darby's Synopsis of the Bible is the best commentary. A set of five books costs ten dollars and can be bought from The Christian Book Room located at 4 Kunsan Garden, Shanghai. Darby does fall into the denominational type of arguments. His study of the Bible is quite deep, and those who read these books have to read them three or four times before they can fully understand their meaning. However, this set still has its shortcomings. It is left to the readers to select them carefully. As far as Chinese commentaries are concerned, either translated or written, most of them are too shallow. This is indeed a pity!
Question: When it is necessary for several persons to work together, is it improper to have some kind of organization? Why can it not be considered as a small flock in one accord? (Lee, Kiangsu)
Answer: Saints can work together without any organization. Barnabas and Paul's preaching of the gospel together is one example of it. We should not consider several persons laboring together to be an organization automatically. We can regard it as a small flock in one accord. However, in working together, it is possible to have organizations or be organizational. This is something that we have to be careful about.
